buells wrote: Sun Dec 29, 2019 4:14 am
Haha, that was a very kind way of telling me I am clueless on this, which may very well be true! I tried to recapitulate what I learned in my college macroeconomics class... that was a long time ago, so I may have gotten that wrong. The other possibility is that what I learned was a simplified example. I did read the original article you posted, which I thought was interesting.
Would you be so kind as to explain where you think I am off? I will read the BoE article you posted as well. My understanding is the U.K. doesn't have reserve requirements, so the mechanics might be a bit different.
What I (think I) do know is that the reserve requirement in the U.S. has no material impact on lending. I thought this was because the system always has excess reserves, and the Fed can control the price of reserves regardless of the quantities by essentially offering to borrow or lend an unlimited amount of reserves at a set price (the Fed Funds target rate). Accordingly, the supply of reserves wouldn't really matter. The reason why I provide the example in my first paragraph is to show that every bank needs to lend or borrow reserves, so deposits in a given bank do NOT limit its lending. Also, I think it is important to note that finding borrowers at a given credit risk adjusted interest rate IS a constraint and having deposits coming in does not magically allow the bank to lend them all out instantly in a remotely prudent way.
Is that understanding essentially correct?
First I have to say that I believe the paper does a fair enough job of telling "how", but not "why".
Second: Anyone with a properly furnished head will realize the information provided is a game-changer.
I can try to super-condense the scheme I have in my head with the fewest possible words.
So this will be the set-up of the game and process:
A-Players.
A1 There are four (systems):
governments, non-banks, banks and central banks.
B-Policy:
B1 Is created by system 4.
B2 Systems 3&4 MONETIZE ASSETS from systems 1,2&3.
B3 Systems 1&2 don´t monetize.
C-Assets:
C1 Can be present or future.
C2 Can be material or abstract.
C3 Can be domestic or international.
C.1-Valuation:
C.1.1 By proximity or by guess.
C.1.2 Measured in currency units.
C.2-Monetization:
C.2.1 Means here to create money, equal to the value of the asset.
D-Business:
D1 Fixed fees.
D2 Variable fees.
NOTES.
B Policy, meaning politics, meaning power.
b1 System 1 delegates policy to 4 (Basel III)
b2 System 4 is outlying.
b3 System 2 includes all producers.
C noun, it has qualities of:
c1 time
c2 substance
c3 space
C.1 Verb, acting upon C (First step)
c1.1 noun (established), or verb (to establish).
c.2 Verb, acting upon C (Second step)
c2.1 NO LOANS!
D how banks make money.
D1 fees on valuation
D2 fees on monetization (interest).
Now, anyone is free to add, substract or correct this scheme, just tell me. I could add stuff but then it will be just condensed instead of super-condensed.
Where I believe you are wrong is by assuming banks lend, and then lend deposits. The paper says they lend, but they create the money "first" before lending. Obviously you cannot lend something you don´t have, so monetizing is a verb I personally find more convenient to explain the process. Lending is just misleading.
As for "depositing", it also sounds misleading. It will be better to talk about buying and selling securities (aka. collateral, go figure!)
So a deposit will be your collateral, bought by system 3. Remember you don´t monetize being a producer (system 2), so this collateral of yours came from another member which owes it to system 3, (plus fees!)
This has interesting consequences to the whole system if you think on it.
Does the scheme above makes any sense? I´d like to tweak it here and there if neccessary.